Archive for month: August, 2019

What are risk factors and how do they impact the cultures you serve as a nurse?

In a 1-2 page Word document, explain about risk factors for a different culture. (Hispanic Culture) You may conduct independent online research to provide information for your response. Please cite any outside research sources.

What is the definition of risk factors?

Select a different culture than your own (Hispanic Culture) and describe two risk factors.

What one nursing strategy can you implement to effectively care for this culture, based upon the risk factors that you identified?

Identify one health promotio

Design a class that you would like to teach someday. The class must be at least 4 hours in length and must be multiple sessions. It can be four sessions of 1 hour each, or two sessions of 2 hours each, depending on your topic and target audience.

Begin by describing the institution that is sponsoring the class (e.g., academic, hospital, or community agency). Include the philosophy of the sponsoring organization and how that will affect the course you are developing.

Explain how you determined a need for this class (needs assessment).

Write a one-paragraph description of the class.

Identify the target audience.

Identify the learning resources you will use for the class (textbooks or other resources).

Write the program outcomes for the course and the learner objectives for each class session. Indicate which domains of learning are represented by each learner objective.

There is no predetermined length criterion for this assignment. It is intended that each student will develop a class that they can use in their selected area of education. You will complete this project in your next course, NUR-649E.

Walden NURS6501 Week 8 Quiz latest 2017

Question 1

A 40-year-old female presents complaining of pain near the midline in the epigastrium. Assuming the pain is caused by a stimulus acting on an abdominal organ, the pain felt is classified as:

a. Visceral

b. Somatic

c. Parietal

d. Referred

Question 2

An 8-week-old male was recently diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. Which of the following digestive alterations would be expected?

a. Insufficient bile production

b. Gastric atrophy

c. Hypersecretion of stomach acid

d. Nutrient malabsorption

Question 3

In alcoholic cirrhosis, hepatocellular damage is caused by:

a. acetaldehyde accumulation.

b. bile toxicity.

c. acidosis.

d. fatty infiltrations.

Question 4

Where does the nurse expect the obstruction to be in a patient with extrahepatic portal hypertension?

a. Sinusoids

b. Bile ducts

c. Hepatic portal vein

d. Hepatic artery

Question 5

Kwashiorkor is a severe dietary deficiency of:

a. fat-soluble vitamins.

b. carbohydrates.

c. protein.

d. calcium and magnesium.

Question 6

A 27-year-old male presents with fever, GI bleeding, hepatomegaly, and transient joint pain. He reports that as a child he received blood transfusions following a motor vehicle accident. He also indicates he was vaccinated against hepatitis B. Which of the following types of hepatitis does the clinician think he most likely has?

a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D

Question 7

Prolonged diarrhea is more serious in children than adults because:

a. children have lower adipose reserves.

b. fluid reserves are lower in children.

c. children have a lower metabolic rate.

d. children are more resistant to antimicrobial therapy.

Question 8

A 40-year-old male develops an intestinal obstruction related to protrusion of the intestine through the inguinal ring. This condition is referred to as:

a. Intussusception

b. A volvulus

c. A hernia

d. Adhesions

Question 9

A 60-year-old male presents with GI bleeding and abdominal pain. He reports that he takes NSAIDs daily to prevent heart attack. Tests reveal that he has a peptic ulcer. The most likely cause of this disease is:

a. Increasing subepithelial bicarbonate production

b. Accelerating the H+ (proton) pump in parietal cells

c. Inhibiting mucosal prostaglandin synthesis

d. Stimulating a shunt of mucosal blood flow

Question 10

Acute pancreatitis often manifests with pain to which of the following regions?

a. Right lower quadrant

b. Right upper quadrant

c. Epigastric

d. Suprapubic

Question 11

A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with cancer of the esophagus. Which of the following factors most likely contributed to his disease?

a. Reflux esophagitis

b. Intestinal parasites

c. Ingestion of salty foods

d. Frequent use of antacids

Question 12

The primary complication of enterocolitis associated with Hirschsprung disease is related to which finding?

a. Fecal impaction

b. Pancreatic insufficiency

c. Hyperactive peristalsis

d. Ileal atresia

Question 13

The most common cause of chronic vascular insufficiency among the elderly is:

a. Anemia

b. Aneurysm

c. Lack of nutrition in gut lumen

d. Atherosclerosis

Question 14

The most common clinical manifestation of portal hypertension is _____ bleeding.

a. rectal

b. duodenal

c. esophageal

d. intestinal

Question 15

A 54-year-old male is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease.This condition is most likely caused by:

a. Hereditary hormonal imbalances with high gastrin levels

b. Breaks in the mucosa and presence of corrosive secretions

c. Decreased vagal activity and vascular engorgement

d. Gastric erosions related to high ammonia levels and bile reflux

Question 16

The cardinal sign of pyloric stenosis caused by ulceration or tumors is:

a. Constipation

b. Diarrhea

c. Vomiting

d. Heartburn

Question 17

A 55-year-old male died in a motor vehicle accident. Autopsy revealed an enlarged liver caused by fatty infiltration, testicular atrophy, and mild jaundice secondary to cirrhosis. The most likely cause of his condition is:

a. Bacterial infection

b. Viral infection

c. Alcoholism

d. Drug overdose

Question 18

Manifestations associated with hepatic encephalopathy from chronic liver disease are the result of:

a. hyperbilirubinemia and jaundice.

b. fluid and electrolyte imbalances.

c. impaired ammonia metabolism.

d. decreased cerebral blood flow.

Question 19

The most common disorder associated with upper GI bleeding is:

a. diverticulosis.

b. hemorrhoids.

c. esophageal varices.

d. cancer.

Question 20

A 3-month-old female develops colicky pain, abdominal distention, and diarrhea after drinking cow’s milk. The best explanation for her symptoms is:

a. Deficiency of bile that stimulates digestive secretions and bowel motility

b. Excess of amylase, which increases the breakdown of starch and causes an osmotic diarrhea

c. Overgrowth of bacteria from undigested fat molecules, which leads to gas formation and de creased bowel motility

d. Excess of undigested lactose in her digestive tract, resulting in increased fluid movement into the digestive lumen and increased bowel motility

Question 21

A 55-year-old female has general symptoms of gallstones but is also jaundiced. IV cholangiography would most likely reveal that the gallstones are obstructing the:

a. Intrahepatic bile canaliculi

b. Gallbladder

c. Cystic duct

d. Common bile duct

Question 22

A 1-week-old female is brought to her pediatrician for abdominal distention and unstable temperature. Physical examination reveals bradycardia and apnea. Tests reveal hypoxic injury to the bowel resulting in bacterial invasion and perforation. This condition is referred to as:

a. Infective enteropathy

b. Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)

c. Mucoviscidosis

d. Ileus

Question 23

For the patient experiencing esophageal reflux, the nurse would expect which sphincter to be malfunctioning?

a. Pyloric

b. Lower esophageal

c. Upper esophageal

d. Gastric

Question 24

Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder wall usually caused by:

a. accumulation of bile in the hepatic duct.

b. obstruction of the cystic duct by a gall-stone.

c. accumulation of fat in the wall of the gallbladder.

d. viral infection of the gallbladder.

Question 25

A 6-month-old male infant is brought to the ER after the sudden development of abdominal pain, irritability, and vomiting followed by passing of “currant jelly” stool. Ultrasound reveals intestinal obstruction in which the ileum collapsed through the ileocecal valve and invaginated into the large intestine. This type of obstruction is referred to as:

a. Prolapse

b. Pyloric stenosis

c. Intussusception

d. Imperforation

Question 26

A 22-year-old male underwent brain surgery to remove a tumor. Following surgery, he experienced a peptic ulcer. His ulcer is referred to as a(n) _____ ulcer.

a. Infectious

b. Cushing

c. Ischemic

d. Curling

Question 27

Chronic gastritis is classified according to the:

a. severity.

b. location of lesions.

c. patient’s age.

d. signs and symptoms.

Question 28

Reflux esophagitis is defined as a(n):

a. Immune response to gastroesophageal reflux

b. Inflammatory response to gastroesophageal reflux

c. Congenital anomaly

d. Secretory response to hiatal hernia

Question 29

The cardinal signs of small bowel obstruction are:

a. Vomiting and distention

b. Diarrhea and excessive thirst

c. Dehydration and epigastric pain

d. Abdominal pain and rectal bleeding

Question 30

The nurse assessing the patient with biliary atresia would expect to find which primary clinical manifestation?

a. Anemia

b. Jaundice

c. Hypobilirubinemia

d. Ascites

Question 31

A 20-year-old male was recently diagnosed with lactose intolerance. He eats an ice cream cone and develops diarrhea. His diarrhea can be classified as _____ diarrhea.

a. Motility

b. Hypotonic

c. Secretory

d. Osmotic

Question 32

Which of the following symptoms would help a health care provider distinguish between ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease?

a. Pattern of remission/exacerbations

b. Abdominal pain

c. Malabsorption

d. Diarrhea

Question 33

A 45-year-old male complains of heartburn after eating and difficulty swallowing. He probably has:

a. Pyloric stenosis

b. Hiatal hernia

c. Gastric cancer

d. Achalasia

Question 34

The exocrine portion of the pancreas contains:

a. alpha cells.

b. beta cells.

c. acinar cells.

d. islets of Langerhans.

Question 35

Outbreaks of hepatitis _____ often occur in young children attending day care centers and can be attributed to poor hand washing.

a. A

b. B

FNU Physical Assessment in Health Care Quiz

Question 1

Which of the following is a relatively benign condition that may occur during pregnancy or labor?

a. Macular degeneration

b. Papilledema

c. Subconjunctival hemorrhage

d. Cupping of the optic disc

Question 2

Which maneuver can be done to reduce the systemic absorption of cycloplegic and mydriatic agents when examining a pregnant woman if the examination is mandatory?

a. Have the woman keep her eyes closed for several minutes.

b. Instill half the usual dosage.

c. Keep the patient supine, with her head turned and flexed.

d. Use nasolacrimal occlusion after instillation

Question 3

When there is an imbalance found with the corneal light test, you should then perform the ___________ test.

a. confrontation

b. accommodation

c. cover–uncover

d. visual acuity

Question 4

White specks scattered in a linear pattern around the entire circumference of the iris are called:

a. drusen bodies.

b. cotton wool spots.

c. rust spots.

d. Brushfield spots.

Question 5

Which of the following may be suggestive of Down syndrome?

a. Drusen bodies

b. Papilledema

c. Narrow palpebral fissures

d. Prominent epicanthal folds

Question 6

You are attempting to examine the eyes of a newborn. To facilitate eye opening, you would first:

a. dim the room lights.

b. elicit pain.

c. place him in the supine position.

d. shine the penlight in his or her eyes.

Question 7

When testing corneal sensitivity controlled by cranial nerve V, you should expect the patient to respond by:

a. brisk blinking.

b. copious tearing.

c. pupil dilation.

d. reflex smiling.

Question 8

Xanthelasma may suggest that the patient has an abnormality of:

a. lipid metabolism.

b. cognitive function.

c. renal metabolism.

d. bone marrow function.

Question 9

You observe pupillary response as the patient looks at a distant object and then at an object held 10 cm from the bridge of the nose.You are assessing for:

a. confrontation reaction.

b. accommodation.

c. pupillary light reflex.

d. nystagmus.

Question 10

Which of the following findings, when seen in the infant, is ominous?

a. Difficulty tracking objects with the eyes

b. Appearing to have better peripheral than central vision

c. Blinking when bright light is directed at the face

d. White pupils on photographs

Question 11

When you ask the patient to identify smells, you are assessing cranial nerve __.

Ans: 1

Question 12

Which risk factor is associated with the highest rate of oral cancers?

a. Women

b. Being younger than 55 years

c. excessive caffeine use

d. Fanconi anemia

Question 13

You are interviewing a parent whose child has a fever, is pulling at her right ear, and is irritable. You ask the parent about the child’s appetite and find that the child has a decreased appetite. This additional finding is more suggestive of:

a. acute otitis media.

b. otitis externa.

c. serous otitis media.

d. middle ear effusion.

Question 14

Which of the following signs and symptoms occur with a sensorineural hearing loss? (Select all that apply.)

a. Air conduction shorter than bone conduction

b. Lateralization to the affected ear

c. Loss of high-frequency sounds

d. Speaks more loudly

e. Disorder of the inner ear

f. Air conduction longer than bone conduction

Question 15

Which variation may be an expected finding in the ear examination of a newborn?

a. Diffuse light reflex

b. Purulent material in the ear canal

c. Redness and swelling of the mastoid process

d. Small perforations of the tympanic membrane

Question 16

White, rounded, or oval ulcerations surrounded by a red halo and found on the oral mucosa are:

a. Fordyce spots.

b. aphthous ulcers.

c. Stensen ducts.

d. leukoedema.

Question 17

You are performing Weber and Rinne hearing tests. For the Weber test, the sound lateralized to the unaffected ear; for the Rinne test, air conduction–to–bone conduction ratio is less than 2:1. You interpret these findings as suggestive of:

a. a defect in the inner ear.

b. a defect in the middle ear.

c. otitis externa.

d. impacted cerumen.

Question 18

You are performing hearing screening tests. Who would be expected to find difficulty in hearing the highest frequencies?

a. 7

b. 12

c. 20

d. 40

e. 65

Question 19

Which abnormality is common during pregnancy?

a. Eruption of additional molars

b. Hypertrophy of the gums

c. Otitis externa

d. Otitis media

Question 20

You are using a pneumatic attachment on the otoscope while assessing tympanic membrane movement. You gently squeeze the bulb but see no movement of the membrane. Your next action should be to:

a. remove all cerumen from the canal.

b. make sure the speculum is sealed form outside air.

c. squeeze the bulb with more force.

d. insert the speculum to depth of 2 cm.

Question 21

Which of the following is an expected change in the assessment of the thyroid during pregnancy?

a. Palpation of the gland becomes difficult.

b. A bruit is auscultated.

c. Inspection reveals a goiter.

d. The gland is tender on palpation

Question 22

Which type of headache usually occurs at night, is precipitated by alcohol consumption, and occurs more often in men than in women?

a. Classic migraine

b. Temporal arteritis

c. Cluster

d. Hypertensive

Question 23

Which of the following is true regarding caput succedaneum?

a. It is a subperiosteal collection of blood.

b. It is firm and its edges are well defined.

c. It develops several days after delivery.

d. It is seen over the presenting part of thehead

Question 24

You are palpating a patient’s thyroid and find that its broadest dimension measures 4 cm. The right lobe is 25% larger than the left.These data would indicate:

a. a congenital anomaly.

b. a normal thyroid gland.

c. a multinodular goiter.

d. thyroiditis.

Question 25

Which of the following findings would be consistent with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)?

a. Corneal clouding

b. Eye slanting

c. Mild ptosis

d. Symmetric, bulging fontanels

Question 26

Which of the following is a chronic autoimmune disorder?

a. tenosynovitis

b. fibromyalgia

c. rhabdomyolysis

d. myasthenia gravis

Question 27

Which cranial nerves innervate the face?

a. II and V

b. III and VI

c. V and VII

d. VIII and IX

Question 28

You are examining Ms. L, age 78 years. You find a sunken appearance of her eyes, cheeks, and temporal areas. Her skin is dry, and her nose appears sharp. This description of Ms. L’s facies is associated with:

a. cutis laxa syndrome.

b. Hurler syndrome.

c. old age.

d. terminal illness.

Question 29

Which of the following is true regarding a cephalohematoma?

a. It is bound by suture lines.

b. The affected part feels soft.

c. It is obvious at birth.

d. The margins are poorly defined

Question 30

Which is the best way to position a patient’s neck for palpation of the thyroid?

a. Flexed away from the side being examined

b. Flexed directly forward

c. Flexed toward the side being examined

d. Hyperextended directly ba