How does the Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act (PSQIA) support patient safety and improved patient outcomes?

Write 3–5 pages in which you describe a nursing informatics best practices policy for effective and safe data use in a nursing practice setting or organization.

By successfully completing this assessment, you will demonstrate your proficiency in the following course competencies and assessment criteria:

Competency 2: Identify strategies and best practices for using informatics in nursing and health care.

Describe the best practices needed to promote and support data security.

Describe the ethical standards needed to promote patient confidentiality.

Describe regulatory requirements that promote and support positive patient outcomes related to a specific population.

Describe the types of behaviors and skills nurse leaders need to guide the use of information technology and research for improved patient-care outcomes.

Competency 4: Communicate in a manner that is consistent with expectations of a nursing professional.

Write coherently to support a central idea in appropriate format with correct grammar, usage, and mechanics.

To deepen your understanding, you are encouraged to consider the questions below and discuss them with a fellow learner, a work associate, an interested friend, or a member of the business community.

How do nurses develop best practice?

How does research support best practice?

What are best practices in your organization that you think are exemplars for improving patient care?

What nursing roles should be in place to support the use of evidenced-based practice?

How would you describe the concept of meaningful use and technology adoption stages: electronic health records (EHR) incentive programs, and how does this fit within the context of best practice?

What are the main points to consider as you review The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), and why is this best practice?

How does the Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act (PSQIA) support patient safety and improved patient outcomes?

Assessment Instructions

Imagine an organization asks you to contribute to the development of an information system best-practices policy to help maintain patient safety and patient confidentiality in their practice setting. The organization wants you to create a document to help the group better understand why an informatics policy is needed and the practices that should be included in the policy.

A nursing informatics best-practices document can serve multiple purposes, such as a handout for new-hire orientation or as a background report given to a committee tasked with creating or updating a nursing informatics best-practices policy.

Preparation

To expand your understanding of nursing informatics best practices within the industry, research the most current information about the topics of nursing best-practices documents and nursing informatics best practices.

Using different methods (Web search, for example), locate 4–6 scholarly articles related to best practices designed to support positive patient outcomes related to the following areas:

The meaning of secure data practices.

Ethical standards needed to promote and support data security.

Patient confidentiality.

Regulatory requirements.

Behaviors and skills nurse leaders need to guide the use of information technology and research for improved patient-care outcomes.

Directions

Create a description of a nursing informatics best-practices policy document designed to define and encourage effective and safe data use in a practice setting or organization.

Purpose Statement: Statement of why an organization would create the policy. Include any reasons and intent that supports the creation of an informatics best-practices policy.

Best Practices Definitions and Descriptions:

Definitions of secure practices, data security, and patient confidentiality.

Ethical standards.

Regulatory requirements.

Implementation:

Behaviors – describe the behaviors nurse leaders will need to demonstrate that will guide implementation of the policy.

Skills required – describe the skills needed to ensure policy adherence.

Format your document using the professional format and style (corporate identity) used in your organization or practice setting. Note: If you are not currently working in an organizational setting, follow the formatting instructions below.

Additional Requirements

Written communication: Ensure written communication is free of errors that detract from the overall message.

APA formatting: Format resources and citations according to current APA style and formatting guidelines.

Number of resources: Cite a minimum of four peer-reviewed resources.

Length: Submit 3–5 typed, double-spaced pages.

Font and font size: Use Times New Roman, 12 point.

Explain the assessment parameters used to provide clues to detect postoperative problems early and the interventions needed.

QUESTION 1: Healthcare Delivery and Evidenced –Based Nursing Practice

The registered nurse working in the cardiac care clinic is tasked with implementing quality improvement measures. To educate the clinic staff, the nurse plans an in-service program to introduce concepts of quality improvement and evidence-based practice. Additionally, the role of the case manager will be included in the presentation. The nurse plans on using care of the patient with Congestive Heart Failure as a template, and prepares sample clinical pathways, care maps, and multidisciplinary action plans. (Learning Objective 3)

a. Describe how clinical pathways are used to coordinate care of caseloads of patients.

b. What is the role of the case manager in evaluating a patient’s progress?

c. What are examples of evidence-based practice tools used for planning patient care?

QUESTION 2: Community-Based Nursing Practice

Mrs. Johnson, a 67-year-old female patient, has recently been discharged from the hospital following an admission for COPD. She has a past medical history of a colon resection related to acute diverticulitis. She developed a surgical wound infection that requires daily wet to dry wound packing and IV Zosyn. Mrs. Johnson was discharged with home oxygen. To manage her care at home, home care visits were ordered. (Learning Objective 5).

a. What would be involved in setting up the first home care visit?

b. Describe the nursing assessments and management that would occur during the visit.

QUESTION 3: Case Study, Chapter 3, Critical Thinking, Ethical Decision Making, and the Nursing Process

1. Mrs. Elle, 80 years of age, is a female patient who is diagnosed with end-stage cancer of the small intestine. She is currently receiving comfort measures only in hospice. She has gangrene of her right foot and has a history of diabetes controlled with oral agents. She is confused and the physician has determined that she is unable to make her own informed decisions. The hospice nurse, not realizing that the weekly order for CBC and renal profile had been discontinued, obtained the labs and sent them to the nearby laboratory for processing. The abnormal lab results obtained later that day revealed that the patient needed a blood transfusion. The hospice nurse updated the patient’s medical power of attorney who was distressed at the report. The patient’s wishes were to die peacefully and to not have to undergo an amputation of her right foot. But if the patient receives the blood transfusion, she may live long enough to need the amputation. The patient’s physician had previously informed the medical power of attorney that the patient would most likely not be able to survive the amputation. The patient’s medical power of attorney had made the request to cease all labs so that the patient would receive comfort measures until she died. The patient has no complaint of shortness of breath or discomfort. (Learning Objective 4)

What ethical dilemma exists?

Who are the stakeholders and what gains or losses do each have?

What strategies should the hospice nurse take to resolve the ethical dilemma?

QUESTION 4:

Chapter 4, Health Education and Health Promotion

he community health nurse is planning a health promotion workshop for a high school PTSO (Parent-Teacher-Student Organization). The choice of topics was suggested by the high school’s registered nurse who has observed a gradual increase in student obesity. The two nurses have collaborated to develop this workshop to provide parents, students, and teachers with information about the importance of health promotion. (Learning Objectives 6, 8, and 9)

a. Describe the importance of a focus on health promotion.

b. According to the health promotion model developed by Becker (1993), what four variables influence the selection and use of health promotion behaviors?

c. Describe four components of health promotion.

QUESTION 5: Chapter 5, Adult Health and Nutritional Assessment

The registered nurse prepares to conduct a nutritional assessment on Mrs. Varner, a 52-year-old Caucasian female who describes herself as “overweight most of my adult life.” The client states that her health is good. She works part time as a receptionist and volunteers about 10 hours per week in her church. The nurse obtains Mrs. Varner’s height as 64 inches and her weight as 165 pounds. (Learning Objective 8)

a. What is the rationale for computing body mass index? What is Mrs. Varner’s BMI?

b. Calculate her ideal body weight. What is your assessment of her BMI and weight?

c. Based on Mrs. Varner’s BMI and weight, the nurse measures her waist circumference. Describe the proper procedure for this assessment.

d. Mrs. Varner’s waist circumference is 38 inches. What is your assessment?

e. What laboratory values would the nurse review to evaluate Mrs. Varner’s protein levels?

QUESTION 6: Chapter 6, Individual and Family Homeostasis, Stress, and Adaptation

Mary Turner stepped on a nail 5 days ago and sustained a puncture about 1 inch deep. She immediately cleaned the area with soap and water and hydrogen peroxide, and applied triple antibiotic ointment to the site. Today she comes to the clinic with complaints of increased pain and swelling in her foot. On assessment, the nurse notes that the puncture site is red and edematous, and has a moderate amount of yellowish drainage. (Learning Objective 9)

a. Describe the sequence of events that caused the local inflammation seen in Mary’s foot.

b. What is the role of histamine and kinins in the inflammatory process?

c. Which of the five cardinal signs of inflammation does Mary exhibit?

d. Because Mary’s injury occurred 5 days ago, the nurse should assess for what systemic effects?

QUESTION 7:

Chapter 7, Overview of Transcultural Nursing

The nurse manager of an ambulatory care clinic has noted an increased number of visits by patients from different countries and cultures, including patients from Mexico and other Latin American countries. Concerned about meeting the needs of this culturally diverse population, the nurse manager convenes a staff meeting to discuss this change in patient demographics, and to query the staff about any learning needs they have related to the care of these patients. (Learning Objective 3)

a. What strategy to avoid stereotyping clients from other cultures should the nurse include in this meeting?

b. Identify culturally sensitive issues to be discussed in the staff meeting.

c. One technician on the staff complains that some patients never make eye contact, and this makes it difficult for him to complete his work. How should the nurse respond?

QUESTION 8: Chapter 8, Overview of Genetics and Genomics in Nursing

Mr. Wayne is a 38-year-old man with a significant family history of elevated cholesterol levels. His father died at age 42 from a massive heart attack secondary to elevated cholesterol and triglycerides, and two of his older siblings are currently taking medications to lower their cholesterol levels. Mr. Wayne makes an appointment to discuss his risk for hypercholesterolemia. The nurse recognizes that Mr. Wayne is at risk for familial hypercholesterolemia because this is an autosomal dominant inherited condition. (Learning Objective 2)

a. Describe the pattern of autosomal dominant inheritance.

b. Mr. Wayne asks what chance his children have of developing familial hypercholesterolemia. How should the nurse respond?

c. Explain the phenomenon of penetrance observed in autosomal dominant inheritance.

QUESTION 9: Chapter 9, Chronic Illness and Disability

Mr. Edwards is 20-year-old male patient who is admitted for treatment of recurring pyelonephritis (kidney infection) and surgical treatment of a urinary stricture, which has decreased the urinary stream. Mr. Edwards has paraplegia; he is paralyzed from the waist down secondary to an automobile accident when he was 16. He came by ambulance to the hospital, leaving his wheelchair and wheelchair pressure-relieving cushion at home. According to the nursing history, the patient is a nonsmoker and he does not drink alcohol or take any illegal drugs. (Learning Objective 5)

a. What nursing considerations should be made for Mr. Edwards related to his disability?

b. What health promotion and prevention education does Mr. Edwards need?

QUESTION 10: Chapter 10, Principles and Practices of Rehabilitation

You are assigned to care for David Ramsey, a 22-year-old male patient who sustained a back injury secondary to being thrown from a motorcycle. He did not damage the spinal cord, but the computed tomography revealed a compression fracture at L-2 (lumbar area). David complains of severe lower back pain with numbness and tingling in the lower extremities. You identify the following nursing diagnosis: Impaired Physical Mobility.

(Learning Objective 4)

a. What assessments are indicated based on this nursing diagnosis?

b. List other major nursing diagnoses based on David’s clinical presentation.

QUESTION 11:

Chapter 11, Health Care of the Older Adult

The nurse working at the senior center notices Mrs. Jones, a 78-year-old, crying. The nurse approaches Mrs. Jones and asks if she needs help. Mrs. Jones states “I am so embarrassed. I had another accident and my pants are all wet. It’s like I’m a baby. I never should have come to the senior center.” (Learning Objectives 3 and 4)

a. What factors may be contributing to the urinary incontinence?

b. How should the nurse respond to Mrs. Jones?

QUESTION 12:

Chapter 12, Pain Management

Mr. Rogers is 2 days postoperative of a thoracotomy for removal of a malignant mass in his left chest. His pain is being managed via an epidural catheter with morphine (an opioid analgesic). As the nurse assumes care of Mr. Rogers, he is alert and fully oriented, and states that his current pain is 2 on a 1-to-10 scale. His vital signs are 37.8 – 92 – 12, 138/82. (Learning Objective 6)

What are benefits of epidural versus systemic administration of opioids?

b. The nurse monitors Mr. Rogers’ respiratory status and vital signs every 2 hours. What is the rationale for these frequent assessments?

c. The nurse monitors Mr. Rogers for what other complications of epidural analgesia?

d. Mr. Rogers complains of a severe headache. What should the nurse do?

e. Mr. Rogers’ epidural morphine and decreased mobility increase his chances of constipation. What interventions should be included in his plan of care to minimize constipation?

QUESTION 13:

Chapter 13, Fluid and Electrolytes: Balance and Disturbance

Mrs. Dean is 75-year-old woman admitted to the hospital for a small bowel obstruction. Her medical history includes hypertension. Mrs. Dean is NPO. She has a nasogastric (NG) tube to low continuous suction. She has an IV of 0.9% NS at 83 mL/hr. Current medications include furosemide 20 mg daily and hydromorphone 0.2 mg every 4 hours, as needed for pain. The morning electrolytes reveal serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L. (Learning Objective 4)

a. What are possible causes of a low potassium level?

b. What action should the nurse take in relation to the serum potassium level?

c. What clinical manifestations might the nurse assess in Mrs. Dean?

Question 14:

Chapter 14, Shock and Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome

Adam Smith, 77 years of age, is a male patient who was admitted from a nursing home to the intensive care unit with septic shock secondary to urosepsis. The patient has a Foley catheter in place from the nursing home with cloudy greenish, yellow-colored urine with sediments. The nurse removes the catheter after obtaining a urine culture and replaces it with a condom catheter attached to a drainage bag since the patient has a history of urinary and bowel incontinence. The patient is confused, afebrile, and hypotensive with a blood pressure of 82/44 mm Hg. His respiratory rate is 28 breaths/min and the pulse oximeter reading is at 88% room air, so the physician ordered 2 to 4 L of oxygen per nasal cannula titrated to keep SaO2 greater than 90%. The patient responded to 2 L of oxygen per nasal cannula with a SaO2 of 92%. The patient has diarrhea. His blood glucose level is elevated at 160 mg/dL. The white blood count is 15,000 and the C-reactive protein, a marker for inflammation, is elevated. The patient is being treated with broad-spectrum antibiotics and norepinephrine (Levophed) beginning at 2 mcg/min and titrated to keep systolic blood pressure greater than 100 mm Hg. A subclavian triple lumen catheter was inserted and verified by chest x-ray for correct placement. An arterial line was placed in the right radial artery to closely monitor the patient’s blood pressure during the usage of the vasopressor therapy. (Learning Objectives 6 and 7)

a. What predisposed the patient to develop septic shock?

b. What potential findings would suggest that the patient’s septic shock is worsening from the point of admission?

c. The norepinephrine concentration is 16 mg in 250 mL of normal saline (NS). Explain how the nurse should administer the medication. What nursing implications are related to the usage of a vasoactive medication?

d. Explain why the effectiveness of a vasoactive medication decreases as the septic shock worsens. What treatment should the nurse anticipate to be obtained to help the patient?

QUESTION 15:

Chapter 15, Oncology: Nursing Management in Cancer Care

The oncology clinical nurse specialist (CNS) is asked to develop a staff development program for registered nurses who will be administering chemotherapeutic agents. Because the nurses will be administering a variety of chemotherapeutic drugs to oncology patients, the CNS plans on presenting an overview of agents, classifications, and special precautions related to the safe handling and administration of these drugs. (Learning Objectives 6 and 8)

a. What does the CNS describe as the goals of chemotherapy?

b. How should the CNS respond to the following question: “Why do patients require rounds of chemotherapeutic drugs, including different drugs and varying intervals?”

c. In teaching about the administration of chemotherapeutic agents, what signs of extravasation should the nurse include?

d. What clinical manifestations of myelosuppression, secondary to chemotherapy administration, should the CNS include in this program?

QUESTION 16:

Chapter 16, End-of-Life Care

Joe Clark, 79 years of age, is a male patient who is receiving hospice care for his terminal illnesses that include lung cancer and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). He developed bilateral pleural effusion (fluid that accumulates in the pleural space of each lung), which has compromised his lung expansion. He states that he is short of breath and feels anxious that the next breath will be his last. The patient is admitted to the hospital for a thoracentesis (an invasive procedure used to drain the fluid from the pleural space so the lung can expand). The thoracentesis is being used as a palliative measure to relieve the discomfort he is experiencing. Low dose morphine is ordered to provide relief from dyspnea or discomfort. The patient is prescribed Proventil (albuterol) inhaler 2 puffs per day, as needed, and Flovent (fluticasone propionate) inhaler 2 puffs twice a day. The patient has 2 L/min of oxygen ordered per nasal cannula as needed for comfort. (Learning Objective 9)

a. What nursing measures should the nurse use to manage the patient’s dyspnea?

b. The patient complains that he has no appetite and struggles to eat and breathe. What nursing measures should the nurse implement to manage this physiologic response to the terminal illnesses?

QUESTION 17:

Chapter 17, Preoperative Nursing Management

The nurse in a gynecology clinic is completing preoperative teaching for a patient scheduled for an abdominal hysterectomy next week. The patient states that she is currently taking 325 mg of aspirin daily for chronic joint pain, along with a multivitamin. The patient has type 2 diabetes; she closely monitors her blood glucose levels. Currently, she is taking an oral hypoglycemic agent. The nurse advises her to ask the anesthesiologist whether she should take this medication the morning of surgery. (Learning Objectives 2 and 4)

a. The nurse instructs the patient to stop taking the aspirin. What is the rationale for this action?

b. Why is it important to assess the patient for use of herbal products prior to surgery?

c. The patient asks how surgery could affect her blood glucose; how should the nurse respond?

QUESTION 18: Chapter 18, Intraoperative Nursing Management

Pearl Richards, 69 years of age, is a female patient who is in the operating room for a repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. The patient has a history of hypertension controlled with medications, osteoporosis, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and has smoked two packs of cigarettes per day for 40 years. (Learning Objectives 2, 6, and 9)

a. What nursing interventions are instituted to reduce the surgical risk factors related to the patient’s age?

b. Explain the role of the nurse in providing patient safety measures during the intraoperative period.

QUESTION 19: Chapter 19, Postoperative Nursing Management

1. Rita Schmidt, 74 years of age, is a female patient who was admitted to the surgical unit after undergoing removal of a section of the colon for colorectal cancer. The patient does not have a colostomy. The patient has several small abdominal incisions and a clear dressing over each site. The incisions are well approximated and the staples are dry and intact. There is a Jackson-Pratt drain intact with minimal serous sanguineous drainage present. The patient has a Salem sump tube connected to low continuous wall suction that is draining a small amount of brown liquid. The patient has no bowel sounds. The Foley catheter has a small amount of dark amber-colored urine without sediments. The patient has sequential compression device (SCD) in place. The nurse performs an assessment and notes that the patient’s breath sounds are decreased bilaterally in the bases and the patient has inspiratory crackles. The patient’s cardiac assessment is within normal limits. The patient is receiving O2 at 2 L per nasal cannula with a pulse oximetry reading of 95%. The vital signs include: blood pressure, 100/50 mm Hg; heart rate 110 bpm; respiratory rate 16 breaths/min; and the patient is afebrile. The patient is confused as to place and time. (Learning Objectives 4 and 7)

a. Explain the assessment parameters used to provide clues to detect postoperative problems early and the interventions needed.

b. What gerontological postoperative considerations should the nurse make?

2. Mr. John Smith is admitted to the hospital for surgical incision and drainage (I&D) of an abscess on his right calf, which resulted from a farm machinery accident. The right calf has an area 3 cm × 2.5 cm, which is red, warm and hard to touch, and edematous. (Learning Objective 5)

a. Explain the wound healing process according to the phase of Mr. Smith’s wound?

b. The surgeon orders for wet-to-dry sterile saline dressing twice a day with iodoform gauze to the wound, covered with the wet-to-dry dressing. Explain how to perform this dressing change

What ocular condition should you suspect?

Question 1

A 22-year-old advertising copywriter presents for evaluation of joint pain. The pain is new, located in the wrists and fingers bilaterally, with some subjective fever. The patient denies a rash; she also denies recent travel or camping activities. She has a family history significant for rheumatoid arthritis. Based on this information, which of the following pathologic processes would be the most correct?

A) Infectious

B) Inflammatory

C) Hematologic

D) Traumatic

Question 2

A 35-year-old archaeologist comes to your office (located in Phoenix, Arizona) for a regular skin check-up. She has just returned from her annual dig site in Greece. She has fair skin and reddish-blonde hair. She has a family history of melanoma. She has many freckles scattered across her skin. From this description, which of the following is not a risk factor for melanoma in this patient?

A) Age

B) Hair color

C) Actinic lentigines

D) Heavy sun exposure

Question 3

A 15-year-old high school sophomore and her mother come to your clinic because the mother is concerned about her daughter’s weight. You measure her daughter’s height and weight and obtain a BMI of 19.5 kg/m2. Based on this information, which of the following is appropriate?

A) Refer the patient to a nutritionist and a psychologist because the patient is anorexic.

B) Reassure the mother that this is a normal body weight.

C) Give the patient information about exercise because the patient is obese.

D) Give the patient information concerning reduction of fat and cholesterol in her diet because she is obese.

Question 4

A middle-aged man comes in because he has noticed multiple small, blood-red, raised lesions over his anterior chest and abdomen for the past several months.They are not painful and he has not noted any bleeding or bruising. He is concerned this may be consistent with a dangerous condition. What should you do?

A) Reassure him that there is nothing to worry about.

B) Do laboratory work to check for platelet problems.

C) Obtain an extensive history regarding blood problems and bleeding disorders.

D) Do a skin biopsy in the office.

Question 5

Jacob, a 33-year-old construction worker, complains of a “lump on his back” over his scapula. It has been there for about a year and is getting larger. He says his wife has been able to squeeze out a cheesy-textured substance on occasion. He worries this may be cancer. When gently pinched from the side, a prominent dimple forms in the middle of the mass. What is most likely?

A) An enlarged lymph node

B) A sebaceous cyst

C) An actinic keratosis

D) A malignant lesion

Question 6

A patient comes to you for the appearance of red patches on his forearms that have been present for several months. They remain for several weeks. He denies a history of trauma. Which of the following is likely?

A) Actinic keratoses

B) Pseudoscars

C) Actinic purpura

D) Cherry angiomas

Question 7

A 19-year old-college student presents to the emergency room with fever, headache, and neck pain/stiffness. She is concerned about the possibility of meningococcal meningitis. Several of her dorm mates have been vaccinated, but she hasn’t been. Which of the following physical examination descriptions is most consistent with meningitis?

A) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with sharp discs, neck supple with full range of motion

B) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with sharp discs, neck with paraspinous muscle spasm and limited range of motion to the right

C) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with blurred disc margins, neck tender to palpation, unable to perform range of motion

D) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with blurred disc margins, neck supple with full range of motion

Question 8

A 58-year-old gardener comes to your office for evaluation of a new lesion on her upper chest. The lesion appears to be “stuck on” and is oval, brown, and slightly elevated with a flat surface. It has a rough, wartlike texture on palpation. Based on this description, what is your most likely diagnosis?

A) Actinic keratosis

B) Seborrheic keratosis

C) Basal cell carcinoma

D) Squamous cell carcinoma

Question 9

A patient presents for evaluation of a cough. Which of the following anatomic regions can be responsible for a cough?

A) Ophthalmologic

B) Auditory

C) Cardiac

D) Endocrine

Question 10

A 72-year-old retired truck driver comes to the clinic with his wife for evaluation of hearing loss. He has noticed some decreased ability to hear what his wife and grandchildren are saying to him. He admits to lip-reading more. He has a history of noise exposure in his young adult years: He worked as a sound engineer at a local arena and had to attend a lot of concerts. Based on this information, what is the most likely finding regarding his hearing acuity?

A) Loss of acuity for middle-range sounds

B) Increase of acuity for low-range sounds

C) Loss of acuity for high-range sounds

D) Increase of acuity for high-range sounds

Question 11

Mrs.Anderson presents with an itchy rash which is raised and appears and disappears in various locations. Each lesion lasts for many minutes. What most likely accounts for this rash?

A) Insect bites

B) Urticaria, or hives

C) Psoriasis

D) Purpura

Question 12

A new mother is concerned that her child occasionally “turns blue.” On further questioning, she mentions that this is at her hands and feet. She does not remember the child’s lips turning blue. She is otherwise eating and growing well. What would you do now?

A) Reassure her that this is normal

B) Obtain an echocardiogram to check for structural heart disease and consult cardiology

C) Admit the child to the hospital for further observation

D) Question the validity of her story

Question 13

An 89-year-old retired school principal comes for an annual check-up. She would like to know whether or not she should undergo a screening colonoscopy. She has never done this before. Which of the following factors should not be considered when discussing whether she should go for this screening test?

A) Life expectancy

B) Time interval until benefit from screening accrues

C) Patient preference

D) Current age of patient

Question 14

You are speaking to an 8th grade class about health prevention and are preparing to discuss the ABCDEs of melanoma. Which of the following descriptions correctly defines the ABCDEs?

A) A = actinic; B = basal cell; C = color changes, especially blue; D = diameter >6 mm; E = evolution

B) A = asymmetry; B = irregular borders; C = color changes, especially blue; D = diameter >6 mm; E = evolution

C) A = actinic; B = irregular borders; C = keratoses; D = dystrophic nails; E = evolution

D) A = asymmetry; B = regular borders; C = color changes, especially orange; D = diameter >6 mm; E = evolution

Question 15

A 79-year-old retired banker comes to your office for evaluation of difficulty with urination; he gets up five to six times per night to urinate and has to go at least that often in the daytime. He does not feel as if his bladder empties completely; the strength of the urinary stream is diminished. He denies dysuria or hematuria. This problem has been present for several years but has worsened over the last 8 months. You palpate his prostate. What is your expected physical examination finding, based on this description?

A) Normal size, smooth

B) Normal size, boggy

C) Enlarged size, smooth

D) Enlarged size, boggy

Question 16

A young man comes to you with an extremely pruritic rash over his knees and elbows which has come and gone for several years. It seems to be worse in the winter and improves with some sun exposure. On examination, you notice scabbing and crusting with some silvery scale, and you are observant enough to notice small “pits” in his nails. What would account for these findings?

A) Eczema

B) Pityriasis rosea

C) Psoriasis

D) Tinea infection

Question 17

A 15-year-old high school sophomore comes to the clinic for evaluation of a 3-week history of sneezing; itchy, watery eyes; clear nasal discharge; ear pain; and nonproductive cough. Which is the most likely pathologic process?

A) Infection

B) Inflammation

C) Allergic

D) Vascular

Question 18

A 68-year-old retired farmer comes to your office for evaluation of a skin lesion. On the right temporal area of the forehead, you see a flattened papule the same color as his skin, covered by a dry scale that is round and feels hard. He has several more of these scattered on the forehead, arms, and legs.Based on this description, what is your most likely diagnosis?

A) Actinic keratosis

B) Seborrheic keratosis

C) Basal cell carcinoma

D) Squamous cell carcinoma

Question 19

An 8-year-old girl comes with her mother for evaluation of hair loss. She denies pulling or twisting her hair, and her mother has not noted this behavior at all. She does not put her hair in braids. On physical examination, you note a clearly demarcated, round patch of hair loss without visible scaling or inflammation. There are no hair shafts visible. Based on this description, what is your most likely diagnosis?

A) Alopecia areata

B) Trichotillomania

C) Tinea capitis

D) Traction alopecia

Question 20

A 19-year-old construction worker presents for evaluation of a rash. He notes that it started on his back with a multitude of spots and is also on his arms, chest, and neck. It itches a lot. He does sweat more than before because being outdoors is part of his job. On physical examination, you note dark tan patches with a reddish cast that has sharp borders and fine scales, scattered more prominently around the upper back, chest, neck, and upper arms as well as under the arms. Based on this description, what is your most likely diagnosis?

A) Pityriasis rosea

B) Tinea versicolor

C) Psoriasis

D) Atopic eczema

Question 21

Which of the following booster immunizations is recommended in the older adult population?

A) Tetanus

B) Diphtheria

C) Measles

D) Mumps

Question 22

A patient presents for evaluation of a sharp, aching chest pain which increases with breathing. Which anatomic area would you localize the symptom to?

A) Musculoskeletal

B) Reproductive

C) Urinary

D) Endocrine

Question 23

Ms.Whiting is a 68 year old who comes in for her usual follow-up visit. You notice a few flat red and purple lesions, about 6 centimeters in diameter, on the ulnar aspect of her forearms but nowhere else. She doesn’t mention them. They are tender when you examine them. What should you do?

A) Conclude that these are lesions she has had for a long time.

B) Wait for her to mention them before asking further questions.

C) Ask how she acquired them.

D) Conduct the visit as usual for the patient.

Question 24

You have recently returned from a medical missions trip to sub-Saharan Africa, where you learned a great deal about malaria. You decide to use some of the same questions and maneuvers in your “routine” when examining patients in the midwestern United States. You are disappointed to find that despite getting some positive answers and findings, on further workup, none of your patients has malaria except one, who recently emigrated from Ghana. How should you next approach these questions and maneuvers?

A) Continue asking these questions in a more selective way.

B) Stop asking these questions, because they are low yield.

C) Question the validity of the questions.

D) Ask these questions of all your patients.

Question 25

On routine screening you notice that the cup-to-disc ratio of the patient’s right eye is 1:2. What ocular condition should you suspect?

A) Macular degeneration

B) Diabetic retinopathy

C) Hypertensive retinopathy

D) Glaucoma

Question 26

Mrs.Hill is a 28-year-old African-American with a history of SLE (systemic lupus erythematosus). She has noticed a raised, dark red rash on her legs. When you press on the rash, it doesn’t blanch. What would you tell her regarding her rash?

A) It is likely to be related to her lupus.

B) It is likely to be related to an exposure to a chemical.

C) It is likely to be related to an allergic reaction.

D) It should not cause any problems.

Question 27

A 47-year-old contractor presents for evaluation of neck pain, which has been intermittent for several years. He normally takes over-the-counter medications to ease the pain, but this time they haven’t worked as well and he still has discomfort. He recently wallpapered the entire second floor in his house, which caused him great discomfort. The pain resolved with rest. He denies fever, chills, rash, upper respiratory symptoms, trauma, or injury to the neck. Based on this description, what is the most likely pathologic process?

A) Infectious

B) Neoplastic

C) Degenerative

D) Traumatic

Question 28

A 28-year-old patient comes to the office for evaluation of a rash. At first there was only one large patch, but then more lesions erupted suddenly on the back and torso; the lesions itch. On physical examination, you note that the pattern of eruption is like a Christmas tree and that there are a variety of erythematous papules and macules on the cleavage lines of the back. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Pityriasis rosea

B) Tinea versicolor

C) Psoriasis

D) Atopic eczema

Question 29

Which of the following changes are expected in vision as part of the normal aging process?

A) Cataracts

B) Glaucoma

C) Macular degeneration

D) Blurring of near vision

Question 30

You are examining an unconscious patient from another region and notice Beau’s lines, a transverse groove across all of her nails, about 1 cm from the proximal nail fold. What would you do next?

A) Conclude this is caused by a cultural practice.

B) Conclude this finding is most likely secondary to trauma.

C) Look for information from family and records regarding any problems which occurred 3 months ago.

D) Ask about dietary intake.

Which one of these statements from the article would be considered a recommendation for future studies?

Questions 1 – 9: Sample. (For help with these questions, refer to chapters: 9 & 12)

1. What sampling method or plan was used by the authors in this study?

a. Simple random sampling

b. Systematic sampling

c. Convenience sampling

d. Network sampling

2. According to Grove, Gray, and Burns (2015), what are the potential biases of this sampling method?

a. This is a strong probability sampling method with very little potential for bias

b. This method is used when an ordered list of all members of the population are available, and provides a random but not equal chance for inclusion in the study.

c. This method provides little opportunity to control for bias because subjects are included in the study merely because they happen to be in the right place at the right time.

d. This method is specific to the individuals who were recruited and the information gained cannot be generalized to others who don’t share these types of experiences.

e. None of the above biases best describe the sampling method chosen by the author.

3. What was the final sample size reported by the authors for this study?

a. 200 participants

b. 84 participants

c. 159 participants

d. 161 participants

4. Was a power analysis conducted? If so, which statement best describes the results of the power analysis?

a. The authors mention that an a priori power analysis was conducted, and 200 subjects were

determined to be needed for the study.

b. The authors mention that a power analysis was conducted using four predictors and 1-way ANOVA using three independent groups for a needed sample size of 159.

c. The authors do not report that a power analysis was conducted.

5. Which of these statements would be considered an inclusion criterion for the sample in the research article?

a. English-speaking

b. Have at least two years of experience as a nurse

c. Work on a Medical Surgical unit

d. Be a member of the Medical Surgical Nurses Association

6. Which of these statements would be considered to be exclusion criterion specifically identified by the author for the sample in the research article?

a. The exclusion criteria were explained verbally during recruitment.

b. History of depression/ mental health issue.

c. Report of no stress related problems by the participant.

d. Participants only worked on the night shift.

7. What is the refusal rate for this study? (Hint: see page 253 in your text)

a. 161/200 X 100% = 80%

b. 84/159 X 100% = 53%

c. unknown / cannot be calculated.

d. 39/200 x 100% = 19.5%

8. Which of the following would be accurate for the attrition rate for this study?

a. 161/200 X 100% = 80%

b. 39/200 X 100% = 20%

c. 84/159 X 100% = 53%

d. 0%

9. What was the setting for this research study? Briefly describe the setting and indicate whether it was appropriate for conducting this study.

a. The setting for this study was a partially controlled setting and was appropriate for this study’s research design.

b. The setting for this study was not well described by the authors and therefore not appropriate for

conducting this study.

c. The setting for this study was a highly controlled setting and was appropriate for this study’s research design.

d. The setting for this study was a natural or field setting and was appropriate for this study’s research design.

Question 10 – 14: Measurement Methods. (For help with these questions, refer to chapters 10 & 12.)

10. Which ones of these questionnaires, scales, or physiologic measures is used in this research study?

(Select all that apply).

a. The Ways of Coping Questionaire (WAYS)

b. The Nursing Stress Scale (NSS)

c. The Perceived Stress Scale (PSS)

d. The Quality of Life Scale (QOLS)

11. How do the authors describe the reliability of the Nursing Stress Scale (NSS) in previous studies?

a. Two follow-up emails were sent to potential participants.

b. they compared the odd and even questions on the test to determine their equivalence.

c. a team of staff nurses was trained by the primary investigator to administer the questionnaire.

d. they tested a group of subjects twice using the same questionnaire (test-retest reliability).

e. they computed a Cronbach’s alpha on the Nurse Stress Scale that was administered to this group of subjects.

12. How do the authors describe the validity of The Ways of Coping Questionnaire (WAYS).

a. discriminant validity demonstrated that each subscale measured the same constructs.

b. evidence of validity from contrasting groups because they gave it to spouses of MS nurses.

c. no was no mention of determining the validity of WAYS questionnaire.

d. The authors had experience with administering this questionnaire.

13. What types of questionnaires or surveys were used in this research study? (Select all that apply.)

a. The authors developed the Professional Quality of Life Scale.

b. Interviews were reportedly used, but the authors do not explain what was included in them.

c. The authors developed their own questions to ask about demographic information.

d. The authors report adding a few of their own questions at the end of the demographic questionnaire.

e. This study did not use any questionnaires or surveys.

f. The authors used previously developed questionnaires or surveys to measure the study

variables.

14. Were any physiological measurements collected from the subjects for the purpose of this study?

a. Yes

b. No

Question 15- 16: Data Collection. (For help with these questions, refer to chapters 10 & 12)

15. Which one of the following best describes the data collection process used in this study?

a. questionnaires / surveys were completed via the telephone.

b. participants were given the questionnaires on enrollment in the study and asked to drop the sealed envelope in a locked box at the nurse’s station.

c. questionnaires / surveys were mailed to the prospective participants and returned in a self-

addressed stamped envelope.

d. nurse researchers interviewed the study participants in a focus group.

16. If there were more than one data collector for the study, would an estimation of inter-rater reliability be an important concept for the authors to report on for this study?

a. yes, and the authors reported their efforts to achieve inter-rater reliability.

b. yes, but the authors do not discuss any efforts to achieve inter-rater reliability.

c. no, the issue of inter-rater reliability does not apply here.

Question 17 – 19: Data Analysis. (For help with these questions, refer to chapters 11 & 12)

17. What descriptive statistics are used in this study? (Select all that apply).

a. mean

b. median

c. mode

d. standard deviation

e. z-scores

f. percentage distributions

18. What inferential statistics were used to examine the data obtained from the subjects? (Select all that apply)

a. Bivariate correlational analysis

b. Factor Analysis

c. t-Test

d. Chi-Square

e. ANCOVA

f. ANOVA

g. regression analysis

h. None of the above inferential statistics were used in this study.

19. What is the level of significance (alpha) set at for this study?

a. .05 or 5%

b. .10 or 90%

c .01 or 1%

d. an alpha level or level of significance chosen by the authors was not specifically mentioned in the text

of the article.

Question 20-25: Researcher’s Interpretation of the Findings. (For help with these questions, refer to chapters 11 & 12)

20. There are several statistically significant findings in this study. Which of these statements from the article would be considered a significant and predicted result? (select all that apply)

a. As MS nurses’ perceptions of their stress increases, their use of ways to cope increases (r = .357, P<.00)

b. Younger nurses have lower levels of perceived stress, per post hoc Tukey analysis.

c. Baby boomers tend to report higher use of self-controlling behaviors than Gen X and Gen Y nurses when dealing with occupational stressors.

d. The stress perception level is thus determined by the type of occupational stressor that the nurse is

exposed to.

21. Which of these statements from the article would be considered a non-significant result. (Select all that apply)

a. The older the nurse, the higher the level of stress.

b. There was no difference between the scores on ways of coping related to age cohorts (F2158 = 1.12, P=.33)

c. Age, years of experience, and educational levels are not significant factors in levels of perceived stress among MS nurses.

d. Baby boomers tend to report higher use of self-controlling behaviors than Gen X and Gen Y nurses

when dealing with occupational stressors.

22. Which one of these statements from the article would be considered clinically important?

a. According to this study results, a high level of occupational stress is not a known factor for nursing

turnover in MS nurses.

b. Younger nurses have better coping skills to combat perceived stress compared to more

experienced nurses.

c. Baby boomers reported higher use of self-controlling behaviors when dealing with occupational

stressors compared with Gen X and Gen Y.

d. Six participants were removed from the study due to incomplete surveys.

23. Which statements below implied from the article would be considered a limitation of the study? (Select all that apply)

a. The researchers utilized a qualitative method in the research design.

b. Lack of standardization of the conditions of administering the instruments.

c. A small sample size with a low response rate.

d. A measure of social desirability in giving responses as the participants worked with the researcher.

24. Which one of these statements would be considered a statement regarding generalization of these results?

a. The results indicated that there were high levels of perceived stress in this group of MS nurses and can be generalized to all MS nurses in the United States.

b. The survey was mailed only to MS nurses who were members of the Medical Surgical Nurses Association (MSNA).

c. A convenience sample of MS nurses decreases generalizability.

d. The use of a power analysis influenced the generalization of the results to all MS nurses.

25. Which one of these statements from the article would be considered a recommendation for future studies? (Select al that apply.)

a. Future development of programs to help relieve the occupational stress in MS nurses.

b. Research to discover why older nurses have a higher perceived stress compared to younger nurses.

c. Sufficiently educating nursing leaders in generational differences.

d. Identification of occupational stressors, perceived stress, and coping styles among generational cohorts.

How does the theory determine or influence each of their recommendations for action?

Based on “Case Study: Fetal Abnormality” and other required topic study materials, write a 750-1,000-word reflection that answers the following questions:

What is the Christian view of the nature of human persons, and which theory of moral status is it compatible with? How is this related to the intrinsic human value and dignity?

Which theory or theories are being used by Jessica, Marco, Maria, and Dr. Wilson to determine the moral status of the fetus? What from the case study specifically leads you to believe that they hold the theory you selected?

How does the theory determine or influence each of their recommendations for action?

What theory do you agree with? Why? How would that theory determine or influence the recommendation for action?

Remember to support your responses with the topic study materials.

While APA style is not required for the body of this assignment, solid academic writing is expected, and documentation of sources should be presented using APA formatting guidelines, which can be found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center.

This assignment uses a rubric.

You are required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite. Refer to the LopesWrite Technical Support articles for assistance.

Rubric

Explanation of the Christian view of the nature of human persons and the theory of moral status that it is compatible is clear, thorough, and explained with a deep understanding of the connection between them. Explanation is supported by topic study materials. 30%

The theory or theories that are used by each person to determine the moral status of the fetus is explained clearly and draws insightful relevant conclusions. Rationale for choices made is clearly supported by topic study materials and case study examples. 15%

Explanation of how the theory determines or influences each of their recommendations for action is clear, insightful, and demonstrates a deep understanding of the theory and its impact on recommendation for action. Explanation is supported by topic study materials. 15%

Evaluation of which theory is preferable within personal practice along with how that theory would influence personal recommendations for action is clear, relevant, and insightful. 10%

Thesis is comprehensive and contains the essence of the paper. Thesis statement makes the purpose of the paper clear.

Clear and convincing argument presents a persuasive claim in a distinctive and compelling manner. All sources are authoritative.

Writer is clearly in command of standard, written, academic English.

All format elements are correct.

Sources are completely and correctly documented, as appropriate to assignment and style, and format is free of error.

Here is a link to the Khan video on Moral Status. It will help explain the five theories discussed in the lecture:

https://www.khanacademy.org/partner-content/wi-phi/wiphi-value-theory/wiphi-ethics/v/moral-status

what sorts of issues are most pressing in this case study?

Case Study: Healing and Autonomy

Mike and Joanne are the parents of James and Samuel, identical twins born eight years ago. James is currently suffering from acute glomerulonephritis, kidney failure. James was originally brought into the hospital for complications associated with a strep throat infection. The spread of the A streptococcus infection led to the subsequent kidney failure. James’ condition was acute enough to warrant immediate treatment. Usually cases of acute glomerulonephritis caused by strep infection tend to improve on their own, or with an antibiotic. However, James also had elevated blood pressure and enough fluid buildup that required temporary dialysis to relieve.

The attending physician suggested immediate dialysis. After some time of discussion with Joanne, Mike informs the physician that they are going to forego the dialysis and place their faith in God. Mike and Joanne had been moved by a sermon their pastor had given a week ago, and also had witnessed a close friend regain mobility when she was prayed over at a healing service after a serious stroke. They thought it more prudent to take James immediately to a faith healing service instead of putting James through multiple rounds of dialysis. Yet Mike and Joanne agreed to return to the hospital after the faith healing services later in the week, and in hopes that James would be healed by then.

Two days later the family returned, and was forced to place James on dialysis, as his condition had deteriorated. Mike felt perplexed and tormented by his decision to not treat James earlier. Had he not enough faith? Was God punishing him or James? To make matters worse, James kidneys had deteriorated such that his dialysis was now not a temporary matter, and was in need of a kidney transplant. Crushed and desperate, Mike and Joanne immediately offered to donate one of their own kidneys to James, but they were not compatible donors. Over the next few weeks, amidst daily rounds of dialysis, some of their close friends and church members also offered to donate a kidney to James. However, none of them were tissue matches.

James’ nephrologist called to schedule a private appointment with Mike and Joanne. James was stable, given the regular dialysis, but would require a kidney transplant within the year. Given the desperate situation, the nephrologist informed Mike and Joanne of a donor that was an ideal tissue match, but as of yet had not been considered—James’ brother Samuel.

Mike vacillates and struggles to decide whether he should have his other son Samuel lose a kidney, or perhaps wait for God to do a miracle this time around. Perhaps this is where the real testing of his faith will come in? “This time around, it is a matter of life and death, what could require greater faith than that?” Mike reasons.

Write a 1,200-1,500 word analysis of “Case Study: Healing and Autonomy.” In light of the readings, be sure to address the following questions:

Under the Christian narrative and Christian vision, what sorts of issues are most pressing in this case study?

Should the physician allow Mike to continue making decisions that seem to him to be irrational and harmful to James?

According to the Christian narrative and the discussion of the issues of treatment refusal, patient autonomy, and organ donation in the topic readings, how might one analyze this case?

According to the topic readings and lecture, how ought the Christian think about sickness and health? What should Mike as a Christian do? How should he reason about trusting God and treating James?

Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.

This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin. Please refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.

What is the role of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF), and transforming growth factor-alpha (TGF-) in cell metastasis?

PART 1:

John is a 19-year-old college football player who presents with sneezing, itchy eyes, and nasal congestion that worsens at night. He states that he has a history of asthma, eczema and allergies to pollen. There is also one other person on the football team that has similar symptoms. His vitals are BP 110/70, P 84, R 18, T 100 F.

Write a differential of at least three (3) possible items from the most likely to less likely. For each disease include information about the epidemiology, pathophysiology and briefly argue why this disease fits the presentation and why it might not fit the presentation.

PART 2:

A patient has been admitted into the emergency room that was in the passenger side of a car that collided with another car head on. The patient is pale, barely conscious and has a weak and thready pulse. An IV is started. The vitals are BP 80/50, P 140, T 96.0 and R 26. As the team fights to keep the patient alive they have to remove the spleen. Blood is given but it has been mistyped. A transfusion reaction occurs.

Describe the type of hypersensitivity reaction that has occurred and discuss the molecular pathophysiology of the specific type of hypersensitive reaction you have chosen.

In the event that this patient survived the car accident and the transfusion reaction which organs are most likely to be damaged and why?

PART 3:

A 44-year-old patient presents with lump in the chest of approximately 2 cm in diameter. There is a slight dimple over the location of the lump and when the lump is manipulated it seems to be attached to the surrounding tissue. A lumpectomy is performed and the mass is sent to pathology. The pathology report comes back and the mass is confirmed to be an estrogen receptor negative, a progesterone receptor negative and a her2/neu receptor positive breast cancer.

• What are some of the risk factors for breast cancer?

• What tumor suppressor genes are associated with breast cancer?

• What tumor oncogenes are associated with breast cancer?

• Compare and contrast tumor suppressor genes from oncogenes?

NR 507 Week No. 1 Quiz:

1. Which statement about vaccines is true? (Points : 2)

2. Which statement is true about fungal infections? (Points : 2)

3. What is the role of reverse transcriptase in HIV infection? (Points : 2)

4. What of the following remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide? (Points : 2)

5. Once they have penetrated the first line of defense, which microorganisms do neutrophils actively attack, engulf, and destroy by phagocytosis? (Points : 2)

6. After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for _____ months. (Points : 2)

7. Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function? (Points : 2)

8. Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(n) (Points : 2)

9. A person with type O blood is likely to have high titers of anti-___ antibodies. (Points : 2)

10. What mechanism occurs in Raynaud phenomenon that classifies it as a type III hypersensitivity reaction? (Points : 2)

11. During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, what causes bronchospasm? (Points : 2)

12. In a type II hypersensitivity reaction, when soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of (Points : 2)

13. In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial to complete absence of T-cell immunity? (Points : 2)

14. Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)? (Points : 2)

15. What effect does estrogen have on lymphocytes? (Points : 2)

16. Which hormone increases the formation of glucose from amino

17. During a stress response, increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal is prompted by (Points : 2)

18. Which cytokine is involved in producing cachexia syndrome? (Points : 2)

19. Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses? (Points : 2)

20. By what process does the ras gene convert from a proto-oncogene to an oncogene? (Points : 2)

21. What is the role of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF), and transforming growth factor-alpha (TGF-) in cell metastasis? (Points : 2)

22. Many cancers create a mutation of ras. What is ras? (Points : 2)

23. In chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), a piece of chromosome 9 fuses to a piece of chromosome 22. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes? (Points : 2)

24. Tobacco smoking is associated with cancers of all of the following except (Points : 2)

25. What percentage of children with cancer can be cured? (Points : 2)

Many people of Catholic faith pray to ________ for the grace of a happy death.

Question

1. One of the results of the 2005 Hurricanes Katrina and Rita in Louisiana has been an increase in the influx of Spanish-speaking workers. Incorporating cultural and linguistic competence to meet the health needs of this population would include

a. having health care professional staff from different Spanish-speaking countries at health care facilities.

b. ensuring health services are in varying locations.

c. ensuring that all signage is posted completely in Spanish.

d. having all health care workers speak Spanish.

2. A mechanism health care organizations need to incorporate into their strategic plan for culturally and linguistically appropriate services includes

a. goals, policies, accountability and oversight mechanisms addressing these services.

b. partnerships with community agencies.

c. mechanisms for client service reimbursement.

d. staff con? ict resolution policies.

3. Kwanzaa was created in the 1960s to raise awareness and pride for the African- American community. While its tenets can be applied to all people, this particular celebration was developed to celebrate a specific

a. social class.

b. religion.

c. ethnicity.

d. cultural group.

4. Parish Nursing is an aspect of nursing that is becoming more utilized. One of the bases of parish nursing is the premise that

a. it is easier to provide health services to a de? ned religious community.

b. a faith community has an impact on the health of its members.

c. illness is prevented through parish nursing.

d. members of a religion follow de? ned health practices.

5. After the Vietnam War, many Vietnamese immigrated to the United States and settled in areas where they could maintain many of the cultural customs and traditions of Vietnam, including festivals, Saturday schools to educate the children in the Vietnamese language and planting communal gardens. This is an example of

a. heritage consistency.

b. acculturation.

c. socialization.

d. religious preference.

6. A seminal event in the boomer generation that can still elicit comment today is the question

a. ”How did the Challenger tragedy affect you?”

b. ”Where were you when John F. Kennedy was shot?”

c. ”Do you remember Pearl Harbor?”

d. ”What were you doing on September 11, 2001?”

7. A complaint of the boomer generation about the following generations regards work ethic. The “nester” generation born between 1979 and 1984 is more likely to embrace an ethic

a. of employer loyalty.

b. seeking to fit their lifestyle.

c. seeking maximum financial gain.

d. loyal to one’s skills in the marketplace.

8. The best outcome for health care facilities incorporating cultural care into their practices is

a. increased numbers of clients seeking care at these facilities.

b. improved health outcomes for the clients at these facilities.

c. better health care provided by the facility’s staff.

d. increased reimbursement by insurance companies for provided health services.

9. An important consideration when making a home health visit to a client is to:

a. give a general idea of when the visit will be made.

b. bring a gift to the client’s home on the initial visit.

c. just show up at the client’s home.

d. inform the client the approximate time the visit will be made.

10. Certain cultures place emphasis on eating speci? c foods during pregnancy and after childbirth to ensure a healthy mother and infant. This cultural phenomena is an example of

a. time orientation.

b. environmental control.

c. biological variation.

d. social organization.

11. Touch is an important component of nursing, but using it without understanding the client’s cultural background can be a violation of their

a. social organization.

b. environmental control.

c. space and territoriality.

d. time orientation.

12. Before doing any teaching it is important the client understands what is being taught. The most effective method to determine if the client understands any health teaching is by

a. ask the client if they understand what was said in the teaching.

b. speaking slowly and carefully to the client.

c. having the client repeat back what was said in his/her own words.

d. interpreting the client’s facial gestures.

13. Native Americans have a higher susceptibility to diabetes than other population groups within the United States. This is considered a(n)

a. biological variation.

b. component of heritage consistency.

c. social organization pattern.

d. environmental control.

14. While the Census Bureau has placed race as a sociopolitical construct, placing oneself into a racial category can still present a challenge. Those who consider themselves “Creole” would be more likely to place themselves into the category labeled

a. White.

b. Asian.

c. Black or African American.

d. Hispanic or Latino.

15. While shifts in the population profile are occurring, what is an important consideration to address in health care?

a. More physicians need to be trained to deliver health care.

b. Cultural health needs of varying groups must be considered.

c. Health care providers need to be younger to care for an aging population.

d. Health care needs to be streamlined for consistent care delivery.6

16. With the percentage of the 65+ population greatest among White non-Hispanics in the 2000 Census, health planning needs would indicate

a. there is no need to increase manufacture of childhood immunizations.

b. cultural accommodations for other minority groups can be decreased.

c. planning needs for other segments of the population can be revised downwards.

d. this population will have greater demands on the health care system as they age.

17. Twelve percent of the population in 2000 was age 65 or over. Long-term implications for health for this group include

a. developing systems to provide health care only to those older citizens who remain healthy.

b. providing health care that is focused on gerontological needs.

c. providing health insurance for all age groups.

d. developing medications to prolong life at any cost.

18. A hurdle immigrants face coming to a new country is

a. rejecting their old customs in favor of new customs.

b. having their children learn the customs of the new country.

c. finding their own cultural group in the new country.

d. learning a new way of life that differs from their former way of life.

19. In 1970, the highest percentage of foreign-born legal permanent residents becoming citizens came from Europe. What is true today? The majority of foreign-born legal permanent residents are from

a. Asia.

b. Mexico, China, and the Philippines.

c. Europe.

d. South America.

20. Many people who come to the United States to live seek to get a “green card.” The green card

a. confers automatic U.S. citizenship.

b. legally restricts the holder from becoming a citizen.

c. defines the person as being in the country unlawfully.

d. allows the person legal permanent residency.

21. When seeking permanent U.S. citizenship, legal permanent residents take a naturalization exam that questions them on

a. knowing the Pledge of Allegiance.

b. being able to recite or sing the national anthem.

c. elements of the U.S. government.

d. the Congressional district they live in.

22. Among the very real concerns for all residents of the United States, citizens and legal permanent residents, is the rise in undocumented people entering the country. What impact is this having on health care?

a. Increased numbers of undocumented people are straining health care resources.

b. The rise in undocumented people is contributing to the rise in exotic and rare diseases in the country.

c. There is a concern that undocumented people will lead to bioterrorist attacks.

d. Health insurance is being given to all people in the country ensuring universal coverage.

23. One recognized deterrent to poverty is

a. the presence of two parents in a family structure.

b. not needing to have housing assistance.

c. not needing to utilize food stamps.

d. living in a household of a male income earner.

24. While income is not a restrictor for engaging in health-promoting behaviors, higher income improves them through

a. living in better housing.

b. membership in health clubs in suburban areas.

c. increasing opportunities through nutrition and access to facilities.

d. access to better jobs.

25. Many people and groups have provided definitions of health, but the most widely used definition is that from

a. Nightingale.

b. Rogers.

c. Murray and Zenter.

d. WHO (World Health Organization

26. As people progress through a health profession education program, definitions of health become

a. easier to explain to others.

b. aligned with the client seeking care.

c. more abstract and technical.

d. well articulated and understandable.

27. In attempting to define health, what can occur?

a. Listing categories of health will enable understanding of health.

b. Ambiguity is resolved when health definitions are discussed.

c. Terms and meanings can be challenged by others.

d. A full acceptance can be achieved by all parties.

28. Health status and determinants are used to

a. account for health care expenditures.

b. enforce legislation pertaining to health.

c. determine federal dietary guidelines.

d. measure the health of a nation.

29. Healthy People 2010 represents

a. health policies providing monetary incentives to states who reach the benchmark goals by 2010.

b. a plan to improve the health of everyone in the United States in the ? rst decade of this century.

c. mandated legislation that will result in a healthier population by 2010.

d. a monitoring system evaluating the health of all citizens.

30. As with the many variant definitions of health, illness also has many meanings. Illness and the sick role assigned to it are legitimized by

a. the insurance company that pays for the illness treatment.

b. the person having the illness.

c. the health care profession that diagnoses the illness.

d. society’s view of the illness.

31. Among the sick role components is the

a. mandate of appearing ill and suffering from the illness.

b. necessity of taking medications and staying in bed.

c. exemption from performance of certain normal social obligations.

d. refusal to look to other sources of health care treatments beyond those prescribed.

32. During the stage of patient status, it is expected that

a. symptoms are being experienced, leading to a diagnosis.

b. the patient do all they can do to recover from their illness.

c. the illness is now socially recognized and identified.

d. the person shifts into the role as it is determined by society.

33. Assuming the sick role according to Suchman means the person

a. is aware that something is wrong and responds emotionally.

b. seeks scientific confirrmation that something is wrong.

c. seeks help and shares the problem with family and friends.

d. goes under the control of a physician who plans a treatment of care.

34. A person who has cancer may have followed this illness trajectory:

a. presenting symptoms, followed by treatment and recovery.

b. acute illness, unstable status, deterioration, and recovery.

c. diagnosis, treatment, unstable status, death.

d. presenting symptoms, followed by diagnosis and treatment.

35. When Suchman divides the illness experience into its various stages, the medical care contact stage implies the person is

a. cognitively and physically aware that something is wrong.

b. under medical control and following a prescribed treatment protocol.

c. seeking scientific c rather than lay diagnosis in order to interpret what it all means.

d. seeking help and information from family and friends. 10

36. While HEALTH is considered a balance of the person, ILLNESS would be considered

a. the imbalance of one’s being in and outside the world.

b. actual symptomatology physically manifested.

c. part of the human condition that all must experience.

d. the absence of elements that contribute to health.

37. While complementary alternative medical (CAM) treatments are used by people of all backgrounds, recent research indicates CAM use is greater by

a. men.

b. those who have never been hospitalized.

c. people with rudimentary education.

d. women.

38. Alternative medical traditions are considered

a. an essential component of a cultural heritage medical tradition.

b. for use in concert with other aspects of health care.

c. out of the realm of a person’s cultural heritage medical tradition.

d. traditional methods of health care.

39. The evil eye is defined differently by different populations. Evil is thought to be cast in the Philippines through the

a. mouth or eye.

b. eye or touch.

c. foot.

d. breath.

40. The saying, “An apple a day keeps the doctor away, an onion a day keeps everyone away,” is thought to protect HEALTH by

a. recognizing the special antibiotic properties contained within onions.

b. advertising that onions have special healing abilities.

c. protecting the person from coming in contact with those who might be ill.

d. affirming the belief in the power of onions to prevent disease.

41. Religion has an important role in HEALTH, and ILLNESS can be considered

a. violating dietary practices.

b. failure to wear special amulets to ward it off.

c. a necessary part of religious culture.

d. punishment for breaking a religious code.

42. Eucalyptus is a folk herbal remedy that has applications today. It is used for

a. nasal congestion and sore throat.

b. infant colic.

c. toothache pain.

d. fever.

43. Allopathic medicine terms alternative treatments as complementary or alternative. An alternative therapy for rehabilitation might include ________ as treatment.

a. macrobiotics

b. Santeria

c. Voodoo

d. biofeedback

44. The difference between complementary and alternative medicine is that complementary medicine

a. can be used together with allopathic medicine.

b. is never used with allopathic medicine.

c. lessens a patient’s discomfort with allopathic treatments.

d. replaces allopathic medicine as a primary form of treatment.

45. A reason why people seek alternative care treatments is

a. allopathic treatments may cause adverse effects that a person can’t tolerate.

b. training for alternative care practitioners is closely regulated and licensed.

c. insurance reimburses alternative care treatments at the same rate or better than allopathic treatments.

d. it has a better empirical basis than do allopathic treatments.

46. Many people of Catholic faith pray to ________ for the grace of a happy death.

a. St. Teresa of Avila

b. St. John of God

c. St. Roch

d. St. Joseph

47. While shrines that attract pilgrims can be religious or secular in nature, an essential component to all of them is the

a. feeling of peace and serenity that is conducive to healing.

b. location of the shrine.

c. presence of water so pilgrims can take samples home.

d. numbers of people who are attracted to that site.

48. Lourdes, France, is the site of a revered Roman Catholic shrine. Many people with illnesses visit the shrine with the hope of

a. becoming more prosperous.

b. gaining a better job.

c. receiving a cure through a miracle.

d. being able to live a long life.

49. Historically, early forms of HEALING for illness were equated with

a. performing set rituals to prevent illness.

b. finding the person causing the illness.

c. sacrificial offerings.

d. removing the evil causing the illness.

50. Among alternative treatment modalities utilized during an illness may be the

a. consultation of a healer outside the medical establishment.

b. strict adherence to the prescribed medical regimen.

c. willingness to seek a second medical opinion.

d. refusal to allow any medical treatment to be performed.

Comparing household income levels of $150,000 or more within the Asian subpopulations, the population that has the higher income level is

51. A potential explanation for healers being used in addition to or instead of traditional medical personnel is their

a. unique language that is characteristic of their calling.

b. exclusive dialogue with the person who is ill.

c. formal relationship with the client.

d. willingness to be available at any time.

52. An illness of the spirit is treated through repentance and is considered

a. physical healing.

b. spiritual healing.

c. inner healing.

d. deliverance.

53. The six-week postpartum check that women have after having a baby closely matches the crucial ________ day practice of ancient times.

a. seventh

b. fortieth

c. third

d. tenth

54. Baptism dates for children have significance within various religions. Water is the common element in baptism as water signifies

a. protecting the child from illness.

b. cleansing the child either from evil or other maladies.

c. the relation of the child to God.

d. dedication of the child to a family group.

55. Wearing white clothes in the Buddhist tradition indicates

a. mourning the death of a relative.

b. recognition of a religious holiday.

c. joy for the birth of an infant.

d. celebration for a marriage.

56. The decline in the use of patent medicine utilization in the United States began with

a. the passage of the Food and Drug Act.

b. increased popularity of over-the-counter medicines.

c. the rise in alternative health care practitioners.

d. Medicare reimbursement for prescription medications.

57. An important health protection practice among Black American Baptists is

a. drinking blackstrap molasses.

b. eating fresh lemons.

c. wearing camphor around the neck in the winter.

d. taking a daily shot of whiskey.

58. Chicken soup is considered a universal HEALTH restoration intervention in which tradition?

a. French

b. Pacific Islander

c. Eastern European Jewish

d. Italian

59. As a HEALTH maintenance practice, the use of cod liver oil is advocated by those of the

a. German Catholic tradition.

b. Italian Catholic tradition.

c. Iranian (U.S.) Islamic tradition.

d. English Episcopal tradition.

60. A HEALTH protection practice among Irish-American Catholics is drinking

a. senna tea.

b. yeast.

c. hot peppermint tea.

d. wine daily.

61. Fr. John’s medicine is suggested as a HEALTH protection practice from November to May for

a. English American Episcopalians.

b. Canadian Catholics.

c. Native American Baptists.

d. Italian American Catholics.

62. Among the HEALTH restoration practices for menstrual cramps for Irish American Catholics is

a. applying Vicks on the abdomen.

b. drinking cod liver oil in orange juice.

c. applying warm oil to the stomach.

d. drinking hot milk sprinkled with ginger.

63. Activities for HEALTH maintenance for Swedish-American Protestants include

a. walking distances on a regular basis.

b. dressing appropriately for the weather.

c. going to a physician twice a year whether needed or not.

d. starting each day with prayer.

64. While dressing properly for season and weather is an important HEALTH protection practice for Iranian-American Moslems, it is also important to

a. keep onions under the bed to keep nasal passages clear.

b. eat sorghum molasses.

c. keep feet from getting wet in the rain.

d. prevent evil spirits by not looking at a mirror at night.

65. A constant for any culture is the

a. ability for it to change quickly to adjust to new challenges.

b. requirement that all members of the culture act the same.

c. socialization into its traditions, language and practices.

d. necessity for its members to be homogenous in all their decisions.

66. Socialization into the health care culture includes an assumption that

a. effective treatment can only be done by educated and licensed professionals.

b. the more technological the intervention, the greater bene? t it yields.

c. interventions for health events must follow a prescribed protocol.

d. alternative complementary treatments have validity.

67. Contemporary per capita U.S. health care expenditures are expected to

a. increase as part of the overall gross domestic product.

b. decrease as health care becomes available for all citizens.

c. match those of other Western countries.

d. have the United States achieve the highest health status in the world.

68. Specified government efforts for health insurance have resulted in

a. decreasing the amount that Medicare covers for prescription medications.

b. decreasing the percentage of uninsured children under age 18.

c. increasing coverage for prenatal and well-baby care.

d. increasing the percentage of uninsured children under age 18.

69. Technology and scientific advances in health care have resulted in more conditions being treated than in previous decades. The most expensive costs for care are for which conditions?

a. Cardiac disease

b. Conditions resulting in transplantation

c. Diabetes care

d. Pulmonary disease

70. In the early part of the twentieth century, health care efforts focused on controlling infectious diseases and improving

a. maternal and child health.

b. the requirements of the medical profession.

c. chronic diseases.

d. health care costs.

71. The United State relies heavily on guest worker/migrant labor for its agriculture industry. Health care can be offered for this population but faces a potential barrier of

a. language.

b. access.

c. racism.

d. homelessness.

72. What differentiates CULTURALCARE from modern medical care in philosophy is that

a. sufficient money, technology and science are used to cure or remedy.

b. premature death must be avoided.

c. holistic care is predicated on cultural health traditions and needs.

d. disease and injury are avoided through health promotion and maintenance.

73. HEALTH for American Indians has a basis in the

a. curing of those conditions that affect the spirit.

b. respecting of others’ beliefs in healing traditions.

c. harmony between nature and the ability to survive.

d. optimism that life creates positive forces.

74. Evil spirits are associated with illness by the

a. Sioux.

b. Cherokee.

c. Passamaquoddy.

d. Hopi.

75. In determining the cause for illness, medicine men and women look for the

a. dietary practices of the person being seen.

b. past medical history as a determinant.

c. spiritual cause of the problem of the person seen.

d. physical symptoms displayed.

76. Use of sand paintings as diagnosis in the Navajo tradition helps to

a. provide an atmosphere of calming for the medicine man.

b. determine cause and treatment of the illness.

c. ensure that appropriate payment is made by the family.

d. create symbolic representations of the client and family.

77. A sequela related to alcohol abuse in American Indians is the rise in

a. malnourishment among children.

b. breast cancer rates.

c. domestic violence against women.

d. unintentional injuries.

78. The provision of health services through the Indian Health Service means

a. having one master health guideline blueprint for consistency of care.

b. partnering and assisting tribes in planning the best delivery of care.

c. allotting health resources based on population numbers.

d. following prescribed federal guidelines and procedures.

79. Comparing household income levels of $150,000 or more within the Asian subpopulations, the population that has the higher income level is

a. Chinese.

b. Filipino.

c. Indian.

d. Indonesian.

80. The initial impetus for Asian immigration to the United States, specifically with the Chinese population, resulted from the

a. favorable immigration status for the Chinese.

b. high unemployment rates in China.

c. need for cheap labor building railroads in the nineteenth century.

d. demand for menial service jobs.

81. A second-class physician in Chinese medicine:

a. pays the patient’s family if the patient dies.

b. has to wait for patients to become ill before treating them.

c. consults Taoist writings for diagnosis and prescription.

d. receives payment only if the patient is cured.

82. The health and disease beliefs in Ayurveda teach that

a. humans are distinct beings within the universe.

b. disease arises when a person is out of harmony with the universe.

c. at birth, people are not in balance and their lives are spent getting into balance with the universe.

d. living and nonliving things have minor connections with one another.

83. Feeling the pulse is important for a Chinese physician because it

a. can help refine a diagnosis.

b. is only felt on the wrist.

c. indicates a specific treatment.

d. is considered the storehouse of the blood.

84. In acupuncture, needles are inserted at predetermined points called meridians because

a. puncturing the meridians helps to restore yin and yang balance.

b. the best anesthetic response is done through meridian puncture.

c. meridians represent specific yin and yang points.

d. only specific needles can puncture the meridians.

85. While Blacks are represented in every socio-economic group, the percentage of those living in poverty in 2005 was approximately

a. thirty percent.

b. twenty percent.

c. fifty percent.

d. twenty-five percent.

86. Speaking a language other than English at home is highest among immigrants from

a. Nigeria.

b. Somalia.

c. Sudan.

d. Niger.

87. A diabetic Muslim may refuse insulin

a. because it implies the person has not led a holy life.

b. because any injectable medication is forbidden.

c. during Ramadan.

d. if it has a pork base.

88. The leading authority figure within the Black familial structure is the

a. oldest adult child.

b. female.

c. male.

d. minister.

89. When a Black person is being examined, skin pallor can be recognized by

a. palpation.

b. checking the sclera.

c. the absence of underlying red tones.

d. slow blood return.

90. Scars that form at a wound site growing beyond the normal boundaries of the wound are

a. melasma.

b. pseudofolliculitis.

c. keloids.

d. a pigmentary disorder.

91. Educational comparisons of high school graduation and college attendance between Hispanics and non-Hispanic whites indicate

a. Hispanics have a lower rate of graduation and attendance than their

non-Hispanic counterparts.

b. similar percentages of attendance between both groups.

c. more Hispanics attend college than their non-Hispanic counterparts.

d. a higher proportion of non-Hispanic whites fail to complete high school.

92. The largest Hispanic group in the United States comes from Mexico. Which is a true statement reflecting this population?

a. Employment levels are above the national average.

b. Employment in professional areas is stagnant.

c. Migrant farm work is the predominant employment.

d. Most live in urban areas.

93. Visiting a curandero(a) implies a person is seeking

a. holistic care encompassing social, physical, and psychological purposes.

b. care not offered by the medical establishment.

c. care for spiritual distress.

d. specialized herbal preparations not used by the medical establishment.

94. Teas used to treat mental illnesses in the Hispanic population are herbs common in the United States. Yerba buena is an herb used to treat nervousness. Its English name is

a. spearmint.

b. basil.

c. orange leaves.

d. chamomile.

95. The percentage of live births to women receiving third-trimester or no prenatal care is higher for Hispanics than the general population. This would imply that

a. more prenatal services are needed for the general population.

b. some prenatal care is better than no prenatal care.

c. Hispanics possibly have better self-care prenatal practices than the general population.

d. live birth rates would be comparable if all women received appropriate prenatal care.

96. In examining the median age of population groups, the oldest group is

a. African Americans.

b. Hispanics.

c. Whites.

d. Native Americans.

97. While German Americans believe in the germ theory of infection, another potential cause of ILLNESS can be

a. stress-related occurrences.

b. envy by others toward that person.

c. a voodoo curse.

d. unholy actions done in life.

98. Treating a cough in the German tradition may include

a. eating chicken soup.

b. putting wet warm compresses on the chest.

c. drinking lemon juice and whiskey.

d. rubbing goose grease on the chest.

99. To treat a cough, a traditional Polish remedy is

a. taking garlic oil.

b. a mustard plaster on the chest.

c. drinking hot lemonade with whiskey.

d. goose grease rubbed on the throat.

100. When compared to all races, the White population has a higher

a. percentage of low birth-weight infants.

b. percentage of women receiving prenatal care.

c. infant mortality rate.

d. crude birth rate.